Pi Day

A student asked me if π contains itself. This can be interpreted to mean that π10kπ=π¯(k) for some positive integer k, where π¯ is the sequence (3,3.1,3.14,3.141,3.1415,), which is false as it would imply that π is rational. It can also be interpreted to mean that the sequence π^=(3,1,4,1,5,9,2,6,) has a proper sub-sequence that is equal to it. This will be my interpretation in this post.

Lemma. Every sequence s:NS with |s(N)|< has a proper sub-sequence that is equal to it.

Proof. Let F={yS:|s1({y})|<}, let m=max(yFs1({y})), and let n(i)=i for every integer i with 0im, where max()=0. Since |SF|>0, it is the case that an n(i) can always be found such that s(n(i))=s(i) and n(i)>n(i1) for every integer i with i>m. Then s=sn|N.

Alternative Proof. Let n(1) be such that n(1)1 and s(n(1))=s(1). Let n(2) be such that n(2)>n(1) and s(n(2))=s(2). Let n(3) be such that n(3)>n(2) and s(n(3))=s(3). Repeat this process indefinitely. If this is not possible, then there is an i such that s(i)s(j) for every j with j>n(i1), i.e., s(i) does not repeat indefinitely. In this case, let n(k)=k for every k{1,2,,i} and repeat this process starting at i+1. Since at least one element in the range of s repeats indefinitely, it is possible to repeat this process indefinitely. It follows that s=sn.

Claim. π^ has a proper sub-sequence that is equal to it.

Proof. Since π^:N{0,1,,9} is an infinite sequence with finite range, it follows from the above lemma that π^ has a proper sub-sequence that is equal to it.

Although this result is not profound, it led me to ask myself: is the fiber of every y{0,1,,9} under π^ infinite? This may be an open problem.

Happy π Day!